Delta Academy 64-26 Practice Test

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• What is a protective sweep used for?
• What does PC 835(a) relate to?
• Which tools are typically used for performance profiling, and what do they analyze?
• Which describes ETL vs ELT and when each is preferred?
• In the Knock Notice process, which action comes first?
• Which metric best indicates API latency?
• Which core element of plain view doctrine is essential for seizure without a warrant?
• Wardlow v. California (2000) is case law related to which concept?
• Under knock notice compliance, it helps prevent what outcome?
• How would you differentiate unit, integration, and end-to-end testing?
• Which of the following is NOT a level of resistance?
• What belief is required to detain you, according to the material?
• What is the purpose of a SRE error budget?
• Which Kubernetes component is responsible for deciding on which node a pod should run?
• Which approach loads data into the warehouse before transforming?
• What is the curtilage of the home?
• Which scenario is a typical use case for message queues?
• Distinguish between SIEM, IDS, and IPS in cybersecurity monitoring.
• Which item corresponds to possession or ownership in the Nexus Rule?
• Which set of amendments is commonly identified as the Bill of Rights?
• Which SOLID principle promotes designing software to be open for extension but closed for modification?
• Which of the following is a way I can be disciplined?
• Under the statute of limitations, most felonies have how many years?
• Which statement accurately describes containers compared to virtual machines in terms of isolation, startup time, and overhead?
• Which artifact best shows the flow of a request across services to help diagnose issues?
• Case law comes from which courts?
• Why do you get an attorney under the 6th Amendment?
• How long do I have to an in-field show up?
• Under the influence of a controlled substance describes which condition?
• What is the correct approach when a suspect requests an attorney?
• What is the purpose of data integrity checksums and how are they used?
• What is the first step in capacity planning?
• Which caching strategy is typically used to reduce latency by storing copies of content near users?
• Which sequence best describes the core stages of a modern CI/CD pipeline?
• In law enforcement, an exigent circumstance search is most accurately described as which type of search?
• Which Firearm Safety Rule requires keeping the muzzle pointed in the safest possible direction?
• Which scenario describes the vehicle search exception under AZ v. Gant where a search is permissible?
• For Miranda to apply, I must have which condition?
• A private person may arrest for a misdemeanor warrant during which hours?
• What is an in-field show up?
• Which is an element of burglary as listed in the material?
• In data pipelines, how are latency and throughput defined?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a force level option?
• According to the material, what duration applies to an exigent circumstance entry?
• Which channel uses certificates for encryption and authentication?
• In Kubernetes, what is the smallest deployable unit?
• Which option is NOT a type of public contact?
• Which Firearm Safety Rule requires finger off the trigger until ready to fire?
• What is defined as the curtilage of the home?
• What does the 4th Amendment protect against?
• Which approach helps achieve idempotence in APIs?
• Which statement best summarizes the statute of limitations for felonies and misdemeanors?
• Explain NAT and PAT and their roles in private networks.
• Which statement reflects the 14th Amendment principle?
• In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for end-to-end communication and error control?
• Which Firearm Safety Rule requires treating all firearms as if they are loaded?
• Which rule governs when police may use deadly force to prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who poses a significant threat?
• Under People v McKay, when a person stopped for a traffic violation cannot produce a driver's license or its functional equivalent, the stop is considered what?
• Which type of waiver is granted by implication rather than written or spoken words?
• Which term describes a pursuit where authorities chase a suspect to prevent escape, potentially requiring immediate action?
• Which of the following is NOT an option under PC 837 for a private person arrest?
• In debugging a failing microservice, what is the recommended step after reproducing the failure?
• What are the core architectural trade-offs when choosing between a monolith and microservices in a global product?
• Which is an element of burglary under PC 459?
• Which sequence best describes a structured debugging methodology for a failing microservice?
• What factor is essential when evaluating autoscaling?
• Which statement about detention duration is accurate?
• Which statement describes vandalism under PC 594?
• After an adult is booked, how many completed phone calls are allowed within 3 hours?
• What are two ways to freeze a house pending a search warrant?
• What is the definition of an in-field show up?
• Which statement best captures the essence of the Graham v Connor standard?
• Which is the other part of the 4th Amendment besides search and seizure?
• Which term is NOT listed as a way to intervene or intercede?
• What is an appropriate approach to capacity planning for a cloud-native app?
• State the CAP theorem and describe trade-offs for distributed data stores.
• Why are salts used in password hashing?
• How can you measure and improve API latency without changing business logic?
• Which of the following correctly lists the full sequence of steps in the knock notice process?
• What are Infrastructure as Code (IaC) tools, and why are they important?
• What is threat modeling and which common methodologies support it?
• Under the Nexus Rule, which phrase is listed as the correct answer?
• Which element must be present for Miranda to apply?
• If I am physically chasing you, I am in hot pursuit. Which option best describes hot pursuit?
• Which of the following is not a type of waiver?
• Which is the other requirement for a search warrant besides probable cause?
• In reliability engineering, what do SLIs and SLAs represent?
• The arms-reach rule originates from which case?
• If a firearm safety rule is violated by keeping fingers on the trigger, what is the most likely consequence?
• What is a VPN, and how does it secure remote connectivity?
• What does the Simmons decision emphasize before an in-field show up?
• Which waiver type requires conditions to be met for waiving rights?
• I can waive or ______ my rights.
• What is the standard trade-off when using database indexes?
• How much can I search incident to arrest?
• Which technique most directly improves read performance in a database when data hot spots exist?
• Which statement best describes eventual consistency in distributed systems?
• Which step is the second in the knock notice process?
• An exigent circumstance search is categorized as what type of search?
• Which term best describes an interview?
• Which service model best exemplified by Google Workspace?
• Which warrant is used to seize a person inside the residence of a third party?
• The primary purpose of the arms-reach rule is to permit officers to:
• Backup strategies define RPO and RTO. Which statement is correct?
• In-field show up participants?
• What is the correct statement about the three recognized sources of law?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three sources of law?
• Under AZ v. Gant, which scenario allows a vehicle search incident to arrest?
• The search incident to arrest must be conducted in what time relationship to the arrest?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a reason to comply with knock notice?
• During a detention, is identification required?
• In a detention scenario, when is the detention considered complete?
• Which step is the last in the knock notice process?
• Name two OWASP Top Ten security risks.
• Which item is NOT listed as part of the Nexus Rule?
• What does X2, EXTERIOR ONLY refer to in the knock notice context?
• What evidence is indicated by burn marks & residue in the notes?
• Which is an element of vandalism under PC 594?
• Which ACID property ensures that committed data persists after a system failure?
• Wardlow (2000) addresses stop-and-frisk in relation to which behavior?
• Which of the following is a level of resistance?
• Which Firearm Safety Rule requires be sure of your target and what's beyond it before firing?
• What is a core concept of public-key cryptography, as used in RSA or ECC?
• Which best describes a key benefit of Infrastructure as Code?
• What are resilience patterns such as circuit breakers and bulkheads used for?
• Which OSI layer provides user-facing services such as email, web, and file transfer?
• Which statement describes a property of eventual consistency?
• Which practice directly contributes to more efficient query execution?
• The vehicle exception to the warrant requirement allows a warrantless search of a car if what condition exists?
• What is Kubernetes and what are its core components?
• Which regulations are commonly encountered by global apps?
• In event-driven architecture, what is a typical drawback?
• Under California Penal Code 836, which scenario authorizes a warrantless arrest?
• A pat-down under Terry v. Ohio is best described as?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes encryption from hashing and their typical use cases?
• Who can decide not to comply with knock notice?
• Which is a privacy-by-design principle?
• What constitutes high availability (HA) and disaster recovery (DR) planning?
• In which scenario is eventual consistency most appropriate?
• Which case law is associated with the Exclusionary Rule?
• Which type of waiver involves explicit written or spoken language?
• Which of the following is a type of public contact?
• Which service model provides virtualized hardware resources such as servers and storage?
• What describes the role of certificates and PKI in securing communications?
• A protective sweep is best described as which of the following?
• When can I arrest for a felony warrant?
• Which scenario is NOT a valid basis for a warrantless arrest under PC 836?
• Difference between an interview and an interrogation
• Which statement best captures the concept of idempotence in API design?
• Who can decide not to comply with knock notice?
• When does Miranda never apply?
• Which doctrine is described as the Exclusionary Rule in the material?
• Which amendment is linked to applying Miranda rights?
• When is a detention complete?
• In the knock notice process, which step is STATE PURPOSE?
• During a consensual encounter, who is free to leave?
• Which protection is associated with the Fifth Amendment?
• A Ramey warrant is defined as which of the following?
• Which condition allows a plain view seizure without a warrant?
• H&S 11364 relates to which item?
• What is the Nexus Rule?
• Which set of artifacts constitutes the three pillars of observability?
• Plain view searches may be valid when the officer is legally present at the location. Which condition makes a plain view seizure permissible without a warrant?
• Which 14th Amendment principle is highlighted?
• What is an IAM policy, and how does it differ from a role?
• In data modeling, when is denormalization particularly advantageous?
• A Steagald warrant is required to arrest a person inside the residence of a third party. Which option is correct?
• Under the statute of limitations, most misdemeanors have how many years?
• What is multi-factor authentication and why is it important?
• What is one reason to comply with knock notice?
• Which statement best describes the vehicle search exception?
• To arrest you, I need probable cause to prove which of the following?
• Which practice helps diagnose why a query is slow?
• A plain view search is valid when performed from where?
• Which item is listed as evidence related to meth pipes?
• Which mechanism is used to secure channels by linking public keys to identities?
• Which statement best describes a monolithic architecture?
• Which item is considered a Graham factor?
• Graham v Connor establishes that the use of force must be what?
• Which OSI layer is responsible for node-to-node framing and error detection?
• If I waive my rights, it must be KNOWINGLY.
• Exigent circumstances are most closely associated with which immediate concern?
• Regarding plain view searches, which statement best describes when they are done?
• Which statement is NOT supported by the notes?
• For a juvenile, how many calls are allowed after booking?
• In the Knock Notice process, what is the second step?
• How do IPv4 addresses, subnets, and CIDR notation work together for network segmentation?
• List three load balancing strategies and where each is appropriate.
• The fresh pursuit doctrine applies to which category of offenses?
• Name one requirement for a search warrant.
• Under PC 835(a), use of force is authorized for which purpose?
• What does TURS stand for?
• Which statement about Git branching strategies is accurate?
• Under the fresh pursuit doctrine, officers may pursue a suspect without delay into which area?
• Which normal form requires atomic column values and eliminates repeating groups?
• Which statement describes the scope of stop-and-frisk under Terry v. Ohio?
• Which statement describes a role in IAM?
• Which condition makes a plain view seizure permissible without a warrant?
• Which item is included in the Graham factors?
• Which statement describes TLS/SSL?
• What is data anonymization?
• Which term describes a continuous, immediate pursuit of a suspect, often justifying swift action?
• Which amendments are explicitly referenced in relation to rights and procedures in the material?
• Which statement describes RSA and ECC?
• Why is it important to note whether he wants to remain silent or wants an attorney?
• Which statement correctly contrasts encryption at rest and encryption in transit?
• What are described as the Graham factors?
• Which property ensures that a transaction either completes fully or has no effect?
• The term hot pursuit refers to which scenario?
• What is a key difference between microservices and a monolithic architecture?
• Name one part of the 4th Amendment.
• Which of the following best describes a Kubernetes Service?
• Which term defines standing as ownership, possession, or control?
• How long can a detention last?
• Which documentation is part of privacy-by-design?
• What does standing mean in this context?
• Which statement best captures the difference between DevOps and SRE approaches?
• In an event-driven architecture, how do components typically communicate and what are the common benefits and drawbacks?
• Health and Safety Code 11550 relates to being under the influence of what?
• Which doctrine is described as the Exclusionary Rule in the material?
• In the knock notice sequence, which step comes immediately after ID yourself?
• In Git, which branching strategy uses a single main branch with short-lived feature branches merged frequently?
• What is the principle of least privilege, and provide a cloud example?
• In Terry v. Ohio, what justifies a frisk for weapons?
• Which step is the third in the knock notice process?
• Difference between admission and a confession
• Graham v Connor’s assessment of force is evaluated from the perspective of which party?
• Exigent circumstances permit a search for the time necessary to resolve the emergency. Which statement best describes the allowed duration?
• Which statement about TCP and UDP is correct?
• What does a digital certificate primarily verify?
• What does the Simmons decision require before an in-field show up?
• The arms-reach rule is associated with which Supreme Court decision?
• What is the first step in the knock notice process?
• Which privacy-by-design practice is commonly recommended?
• What is a primary benefit of using a message queue in a distributed system?
• Which normal form eliminates transitive dependencies?
• What do transaction isolation levels control in a database?
• In data modeling, how do normalization and denormalization differ, and when should each be used?
• During DNS resolution, which server category is queried after root servers to determine the next step?